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CSSB 79(L&C): "An Act relating to the prescription of opioids; relating to voluntary nonopioid directives; relating to the controlled substance prescription database; relating to the practice of dentistry; relating to the practice of pharmacy; relating to the practice of medicine; relating to the practice of podiatry; relating to the practice of osteopathy; relating to the practice of nursing; relating to the practice of optometry; relating to the practice of veterinary medicine; relating to the duties of the Board of Pharmacy; relating to pharmacists; providing for an effective date by repealing the effective date of sec. 73, ch. 25, SLA 2016; and providing for an effective date."

00 CS FOR SENATE BILL NO. 79(L&C) 01 "An Act relating to the prescription of opioids; relating to voluntary nonopioid 02 directives; relating to the controlled substance prescription database; relating to the 03 practice of dentistry; relating to the practice of pharmacy; relating to the practice of 04 medicine; relating to the practice of podiatry; relating to the practice of osteopathy; 05 relating to the practice of nursing; relating to the practice of optometry; relating to the 06 practice of veterinary medicine; relating to the duties of the Board of Pharmacy; 07 relating to pharmacists; providing for an effective date by repealing the effective date of 08 sec. 73, ch. 25, SLA 2016; and providing for an effective date." 09 BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF ALASKA: 10 * Section 1. AS 08.36.070(a), as amended by sec. 5, ch. 25, SLA 2016, is amended to read: 11 (a) The board shall 12 (1) provide for the examination of applicants and the credentialing,

01 registration, and licensure of those applicants it finds qualified; 02 (2) maintain a registry of licensed dentists, licensed dental hygienists, 03 and registered dental assistants who are in good standing; 04 (3) affiliate with the American Association of Dental Boards and pay 05 annual dues to the association; 06 (4) hold hearings and order the disciplinary sanction of a person who 07 violates this chapter, AS 08.32, or a regulation of the board; 08 (5) supply forms for applications, licenses, permits, certificates, 09 registration documents, and other papers and records; 10 (6) enforce the provisions of this chapter and AS 08.32 and adopt or 11 amend the regulations necessary to make the provisions of this chapter and AS 08.32 12 effective; 13 (7) adopt regulations ensuring that renewal of a license, registration, or 14 certificate under this chapter or a license, certificate, or endorsement under AS 08.32 15 is contingent on [UPON] proof of continued professional competence; the 16 regulations must require that a licensee receive not less than two hours of 17 education in pain management and opioid use and addiction in the two years 18 preceding an application for renewal of a license, unless the licensee has 19 demonstrated to the satisfaction of the board that the licensee does not currently 20 hold a valid federal Drug Enforcement Administration registration number; 21 (8) at least annually, cause to be published on the Internet and in a 22 newspaper of general circulation in each major city in the state a summary of 23 disciplinary actions the board has taken during the preceding calendar year; 24 (9) issue permits or certificates to licensed dentists, licensed dental 25 hygienists, and dental assistants who meet standards determined by the board for 26 specific procedures that require specific education and training; 27 (10) require that a licensed dentist who has a federal Drug 28 Enforcement Administration registration number register with the controlled substance 29 prescription database under AS 17.30.200(o). 30 * Sec. 2. AS 08.36.110(a) is amended to read: 31 (a) An applicant for a license to practice dentistry shall

01 (1) provide certification to the board that the applicant 02 (A) is a graduate of a dental school that, at the time of 03 graduation, is approved by the board; 04 (B) has successfully passed a written examination approved by 05 the board; 06 (C) has not had a license to practice dentistry revoked, 07 suspended, or voluntarily surrendered in this state or another state; 08 (D) is not the subject of an adverse decision based on [UPON] 09 a complaint, investigation, review procedure, or other disciplinary proceeding 10 within the five years immediately preceding application, or of an unresolved 11 complaint, investigation, review procedure, or other disciplinary proceeding, 12 undertaken by a state, territorial, local, or federal dental licensing jurisdiction; 13 (E) is not the subject of an unresolved or an adverse decision 14 based on [UPON] a complaint, investigation, review procedure, or other 15 disciplinary proceeding, undertaken by a state, territorial, local, or federal 16 dental licensing jurisdiction or law enforcement agency that relates to criminal 17 or fraudulent activity, dental malpractice, or negligent dental care and that 18 adversely reflects on the applicant's ability or competence to practice dentistry 19 or on the safety or well-being of patients; 20 (F) is not the subject of an adverse report from the National 21 Practitioner Data Bank or the American Association of Dental Boards 22 Clearinghouse for Board Actions that relates to criminal or fraudulent activity, 23 or dental malpractice; 24 (G) is not impaired to an extent that affects the applicant's 25 ability to practice dentistry; 26 (H) has not been convicted of a crime that adversely reflects on 27 the applicant's ability or competency to practice dentistry or that jeopardizes 28 the safety or well-being of a patient; 29 (2) pass, to the satisfaction of the board, written, clinical, and other 30 examinations administered or approved by the board; and 31 (3) meet the other qualifications for a license established by the board

01 by regulation, including education in pain management and opioid use and 02 addiction in the two years preceding the application for a license, unless the 03 applicant has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the board that the applicant 04 does not currently hold a valid federal Drug Enforcement Administration 05 registration number; approved education may include dental school coursework. 06 * Sec. 3. AS 08.36.315 is amended to read: 07 Sec. 08.36.315. Grounds for discipline, suspension, or revocation of license. 08 The board may revoke or suspend the license of a dentist, or may reprimand, censure, 09 or discipline a dentist, or both, if the board finds, after a hearing, that the dentist 10 (1) used or knowingly cooperated in deceit, fraud, or intentional 11 misrepresentation to obtain a license; 12 (2) engaged in deceit, fraud, or intentional misrepresentation in the 13 course of providing or billing for professional dental services or engaging in 14 professional activities; 15 (3) advertised professional dental services in a false or misleading 16 manner; 17 (4) received compensation for referring a person to another dentist or 18 dental practice; 19 (5) has been convicted of a felony or other crime that affects the 20 dentist's ability to continue to practice dentistry competently and safely; 21 (6) engaged in the performance of patient care, or permitted the 22 performance of patient care by persons under the dentist's supervision, regardless of 23 whether actual injury to the patient occurred, 24 (A) that did not conform to minimum professional standards of 25 dentistry; or 26 (B) when the dentist, or a person under the supervision of the 27 dentist, did not have the permit, registration, or certificate required under 28 AS 08.32 or this chapter; 29 (7) failed to comply with this chapter, with a regulation adopted under 30 this chapter, or with an order of the board; 31 (8) continued to practice after becoming unfit due to

01 (A) professional incompetence; 02 (B) addiction or dependence on alcohol or other drugs that 03 impair the dentist's ability to practice safely; 04 (C) physical or mental disability; 05 (9) engaged in lewd or immoral conduct in connection with the 06 delivery of professional service to patients; 07 (10) permitted a dental hygienist or dental assistant who is employed 08 by the dentist or working under the dentist's supervision to perform a dental procedure 09 in violation of AS 08.32.110 or AS 08.36.346; 10 (11) failed to report to the board a death that occurred on the premises 11 used for the practice of dentistry within 48 hours; 12 (12) falsified or destroyed patient or facility records or failed to 13 maintain a patient or facility record for at least seven years after the date the record 14 was created; 15 (13) prescribed or dispensed an opioid in excess of the maximum 16 dosage authorized under AS 08.36.355; or 17 (14) procured, sold, prescribed, or dispensed drugs in violation of 18 a law, regardless of whether there has been a criminal action or harm to the 19 patient. 20 * Sec. 4. AS 08.36 is amended by adding a new section to read: 21 Sec. 08.36.355. Maximum dosage for opioid prescriptions. (a) A licensee 22 may not issue 23 (1) an initial prescription for an opioid that exceeds a seven-day supply 24 to an adult patient for outpatient use; 25 (2) a prescription for an opioid that exceeds a seven-day supply to a 26 minor; at the time a licensee writes a prescription for an opioid for a minor, the 27 licensee shall discuss with the parent or guardian of the minor why the prescription is 28 necessary and the risks associated with opioid use. 29 (b) Notwithstanding (a) of this section, a licensee may issue a prescription for 30 an opioid that exceeds a seven-day supply to an adult or minor patient if, in the 31 professional judgment of the licensee, more than a seven-day supply of an opioid is

01 necessary for 02 (1) the patient's chronic pain management; the licensee may write a 03 prescription for an opioid for the quantity needed to treat the patient's medical 04 condition or chronic pain; the licensee shall document in the patient's medical record 05 the condition triggering the prescription of an opioid in a quantity that exceeds a 06 seven-day supply and indicate that a nonopioid alternative was not appropriate to 07 address the medical condition; or 08 (2) a patient who is unable to access a practitioner within the time 09 necessary for a refill of the seven-day supply because of a logistical or travel barrier; 10 the licensee may write a prescription for an opioid for the quantity needed to treat the 11 patient for the time that the patient is unable to access a practitioner; the licensee shall 12 document in the patient's medical record the reason for the prescription of an opioid in 13 a quantity that exceeds a seven-day supply and indicate that a nonopioid alternative 14 was not appropriate to address the medical condition; in this paragraph, "practitioner" 15 has the meaning given in AS 11.71.900. 16 (c) In this section, 17 (1) "adult" means 18 (A) a individual who has reached 18 years of age; or 19 (B) an emancipated minor; 20 (2) "emancipated minor" means a minor whose disabilities have been 21 removed for general purposes under AS 09.55.590; 22 (3) "minor" means an individual under 18 years of age who is not an 23 emancipated minor. 24 * Sec. 5. AS 08.36.370 is amended by adding a new paragraph to read: 25 (10) "opioid" includes the opium and opiate substances and opium and 26 opiate derivatives listed in AS 11.71.140. 27 * Sec. 6. AS 08.64.107 is amended to read: 28 Sec. 08.64.107. Regulation of physician assistants and intensive care 29 paramedics. The board shall adopt regulations regarding the licensure of physician 30 assistants and registration of mobile intensive care paramedics, and the medical 31 services that they may perform, including the

01 (1) educational and other qualifications, including education in pain 02 management and opioid use and addiction; 03 (2) application and registration procedures; 04 (3) scope of activities authorized; and 05 (4) responsibilities of the supervising or training physician. 06 * Sec. 7. AS 08.64.200(a) is amended to read: 07 (a) Except for foreign medical graduates as specified in AS 08.64.225, each 08 physician applicant shall 09 (1) submit a certificate of graduation from a legally chartered medical 10 school accredited by the Association of American Medical Colleges and the Council 11 on Medical Education of the American Medical Association; 12 (2) submit a certificate from a recognized hospital or hospitals 13 certifying that the applicant has satisfactorily performed the duties of resident 14 physician or intern for a period of 15 (A) one year if the applicant graduated from medical school 16 before January 1, 1995, as evidenced by a certificate of completion of the first 17 year of postgraduate training from the facility where the applicant completed 18 the first year of internship or residency; and 19 (B) two years if the applicant graduated from medical school 20 on or after January 1, 1995, as evidenced by a certificate of completion of the 21 first year of postgraduate training from the facility where the applicant 22 completed the first year of internship or residency and a certificate of 23 successful completion of one additional year of postgraduate training at a 24 recognized hospital; 25 (3) submit a list of negotiated settlements or judgments in claims or 26 civil actions alleging medical malpractice against the applicant, including an 27 explanation of the basis for each claim or action; [AND] 28 (4) not have a license to practice medicine in another state, country, 29 province, or territory that is currently suspended or revoked for disciplinary reasons; 30 and 31 (5) receive education in pain management and opioid use and

01 addiction, unless the applicant has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the board 02 that the applicant does not currently hold a valid federal Drug Enforcement 03 Administration registration number; an applicant may include past professional 04 experience or professional education as proof of professional competence. 05 * Sec. 8. AS 08.64.205 is amended to read: 06 Sec. 08.64.205. Qualifications for osteopath applicants. Each osteopath 07 applicant shall meet the qualifications prescribed in AS 08.64.200(a)(3) - (5) 08 [AS 08.64.200(a)(3) AND (4)] and shall 09 (1) submit a certificate of graduation from the legally chartered school 10 of osteopathy approved by the board; 11 (2) submit a certificate from a hospital approved by the American 12 Medical Association or the American Osteopathic Association that certifies that the 13 osteopath has satisfactorily completed and performed the duties of intern or resident 14 physician for 15 (A) one year if the applicant graduated from a school of 16 osteopathy before January 1, 1995, as evidenced by a certificate of completion 17 of the first year of postgraduate training from the facility where the applicant 18 completed the first year of internship or residency; or 19 (B) two years if the applicant graduated from a school of 20 osteopathy on or after January 1, 1995, as evidenced by a certificate of 21 completion of the first year of postgraduate training from the facility where the 22 applicant completed the first year of internship or residency and a certificate of 23 successful completion of one additional year of postgraduate training at a 24 recognized hospital; 25 (3) take the examination required by AS 08.64.210 or be certified to 26 practice by the National Board of Examiners for Osteopathic Physicians and 27 Surgeons; 28 (4) receive education in pain management and opioid use and 29 addiction, unless the applicant has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the board 30 that the applicant does not currently hold a valid federal Drug Enforcement 31 Administration registration number; an applicant may include past professional

01 experience or professional education as proof of professional competence. 02 * Sec. 9. AS 08.64.209(a) is amended to read: 03 (a) Each applicant who desires to practice podiatry shall meet the 04 qualifications prescribed in AS 08.64.200(a)(3) - (5) [AS 08.64.200(a)(3) AND (4)] 05 and shall 06 (1) submit a certificate of graduation from a legally chartered school of 07 podiatry approved by the board; 08 (2) take the examination required by AS 08.64.210; the State Medical 09 Board shall call to its aid a podiatrist of known ability who is licensed to practice 10 podiatry to assist in the examination and licensure of applicants for a license to 11 practice podiatry; 12 (3) receive education in pain management and opioid use and 13 addiction, unless the applicant has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the board 14 that the applicant does not currently hold a valid federal Drug Enforcement 15 Administration registration number; an applicant may include past professional 16 experience or professional education as proof of professional competence; 17 (4) meet other qualifications of experience or education which the 18 board may require. 19 * Sec. 10. AS 08.64.225(a) is amended to read: 20 (a) Applicants who are graduates of medical colleges not accredited by the 21 Association of American Medical Colleges and the Council on Medical Education of 22 the American Medical Association shall 23 (1) meet the requirements of AS 08.64.200(a)(3) - (5) 24 [AS 08.64.200(a)(3) AND (4)] and 08.64.255; 25 (2) have successfully completed 26 (A) three years of postgraduate training as evidenced by a 27 certificate of completion of the first year of postgraduate training from the 28 facility where the applicant completed the first year of internship or residency 29 and a certificate of successful completion of two additional years of 30 postgraduate training at a recognized hospital; or 31 (B) other requirements establishing proof of competency and

01 professional qualifications as the board considers necessary to ensure the 02 continued protection of the public adopted at the discretion of the board by 03 regulation, including education in pain management and opioid use and 04 addiction, unless the applicant has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the 05 board that the applicant does not currently hold a valid federal Drug 06 Enforcement Administration registration number; an applicant may 07 include past professional experience or professional education as proof of 08 professional competence; and 09 (3) have passed examinations as specified by the board in regulations. 10 * Sec. 11. AS 08.64.250 is amended to read: 11 Sec. 08.64.250. License by credentials. The board may waive the examination 12 requirement and license by credentials if the physician, osteopath, or podiatry 13 applicant meets the requirements of AS 08.64.200, 08.64.205, or 08.64.209, submits 14 proof of continued competence as required by regulation, pays the required fee, and 15 has 16 (1) an active license from a board of medical examiners established 17 under the laws of a state or territory of the United States or a province or territory of 18 Canada issued after thorough examination; or 19 (2) passed an examination as specified by the board in regulations. 20 * Sec. 12. AS 08.64.250 is amended by adding a new subsection to read: 21 (b) The board shall adopt regulations under (a) of this section that require an 22 applicant demonstrate professional competence in pain management and addiction 23 disorders. An applicant may include past professional experience or professional 24 education as proof of professional competence. 25 * Sec. 13. AS 08.64.312 is amended to read: 26 Sec. 08.64.312. Continuing education requirements. (a) The board shall 27 promote a high degree of competence in the practice of medicine, osteopathy, and 28 podiatry by requiring every licensee of medicine, osteopathy, and podiatry 29 [PHYSICIAN LICENSED] in the state to fulfill continuing education requirements. 30 (b) Before a license may be renewed, the licensee shall submit evidence to the 31 board or its designee that continuing education requirements prescribed by regulations

01 adopted by the board have been met. Continuing education requirements must 02 include not less than two hours of education in pain management and opioid use 03 and addiction for every 40 hours of education received, unless the licensee 04 demonstrates to the satisfaction of the board that the licensee's practice does not 05 include pain management and opioid treatment or prescribing. 06 (c) The board or its designee may exempt a physician, osteopath, or 07 podiatrist from the requirements of (b) of this section upon an application by the 08 physician, osteopath, or podiatrist giving evidence satisfactory to the board or its 09 designee that the physician, osteopath, or podiatrist is unable to comply with the 10 requirements because of extenuating circumstances. However, a person may not be 11 exempted from more than 15 hours of continuing education in a five-year period; a 12 person may not be exempted from the requirement to receive at least two hours 13 of education in pain management and opioid use and addiction unless the person 14 has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the board that the person does not 15 currently hold a valid federal Drug Enforcement Administration registration 16 number. 17 * Sec. 14. AS 08.64.326(a) is amended to read: 18 (a) The board may impose a sanction if the board finds after a hearing that a 19 licensee 20 (1) secured a license through deceit, fraud, or intentional 21 misrepresentation; 22 (2) engaged in deceit, fraud, or intentional misrepresentation while 23 providing professional services or engaging in professional activities; 24 (3) advertised professional services in a false or misleading manner; 25 (4) has been convicted, including conviction based on a guilty plea or 26 plea of nolo contendere, of 27 (A) a class A or unclassified felony or a crime in another 28 jurisdiction with elements similar to a class A or unclassified felony in this 29 jurisdiction; 30 (B) a class B or class C felony or a crime in another jurisdiction 31 with elements similar to a class B or class C felony in this jurisdiction if the

01 felony or other crime is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or 02 duties of the licensee; or 03 (C) a crime involving the unlawful procurement, sale, 04 prescription, or dispensing of drugs; 05 (5) has procured, sold, prescribed, or dispensed drugs in violation of a 06 law regardless of whether there has been a criminal action or harm to the patient; 07 (6) intentionally or negligently permitted the performance of patient 08 care by persons under the licensee's supervision that does not conform to minimum 09 professional standards even if the patient was not injured; 10 (7) failed to comply with this chapter, a regulation adopted under this 11 chapter, or an order of the board; 12 (8) has demonstrated 13 (A) professional incompetence, gross negligence, or repeated 14 negligent conduct; the board may not base a finding of professional 15 incompetence solely on the basis that a licensee's practice is unconventional or 16 experimental in the absence of demonstrable physical harm to a patient; 17 (B) addiction to, severe dependency on, or habitual overuse of 18 alcohol or other drugs that impairs the licensee's ability to practice safely; 19 (C) unfitness because of physical or mental disability; 20 (9) engaged in unprofessional conduct, in sexual misconduct, or in 21 lewd or immoral conduct in connection with the delivery of professional services to 22 patients; in this paragraph, "sexual misconduct" includes sexual contact, as defined by 23 the board in regulations adopted under this chapter, or attempted sexual contact with a 24 patient outside the scope of generally accepted methods of examination or treatment of 25 the patient, regardless of the patient's consent or lack of consent, during the term of the 26 physician-patient relationship, as defined by the board in regulations adopted under 27 this chapter, unless the patient was the licensee's spouse at the time of the contact or, 28 immediately preceding the physician-patient relationship, was in a dating, courtship, 29 or engagement relationship with the licensee; 30 (10) has violated AS 18.16.010; 31 (11) has violated any code of ethics adopted by regulation by the

01 board; 02 (12) has denied care or treatment to a patient or person seeking 03 assistance from the physician if the only reason for the denial is the failure or refusal 04 of the patient to agree to arbitrate as provided in AS 09.55.535(a); [OR] 05 (13) has had a license or certificate to practice medicine in another 06 state or territory of the United States, or a province or territory of Canada, denied, 07 suspended, revoked, surrendered while under investigation for an alleged violation, 08 restricted, limited, conditioned, or placed on probation unless the denial, suspension, 09 revocation, or other action was caused by the failure of the licensee to pay fees to that 10 state, territory, or province; or 11 (14) prescribed or dispensed an opioid in excess of the maximum 12 dosage authorized under AS 08.64.363. 13 * Sec. 15. AS 08.64 is amended by adding a new section to article 3 to read: 14 Sec. 08.64.363. Maximum dosage for opioid prescriptions. (a) A licensee 15 may not issue 16 (1) an initial prescription for an opioid that exceeds a seven-day supply 17 to an adult patient for outpatient use; 18 (2) a prescription for an opioid that exceeds a seven-day supply to a 19 minor; at the time a licensee writes a prescription for an opioid for a minor, the 20 licensee shall discuss with the parent or guardian of the minor why the prescription is 21 necessary and the risks associated with opioid use. 22 (b) Notwithstanding (a) of this section, a licensee may issue a prescription for 23 an opioid that exceeds a seven-day supply to an adult or minor patient if, in the 24 professional medical judgment of the licensee, more than a seven-day supply of an 25 opioid is necessary for 26 (1) the patient's acute medical condition, chronic pain management, 27 pain associated with cancer, or pain experienced while the patient is in palliative care; 28 the licensee may write a prescription for an opioid for the quantity needed to treat the 29 patient's medical condition, chronic pain, pain associated with cancer, or pain 30 experienced while the patient is in palliative care; the licensee shall document in the 31 patient's medical record the condition triggering the prescription of an opioid in a

01 quantity that exceeds a seven-day supply and indicate that a nonopioid alternative was 02 not appropriate to address the medical condition; 03 (2) a patient who is unable to access a practitioner within the time 04 necessary for a refill of the seven-day supply because of a logistical or travel barrier; 05 the licensee may write a prescription for an opioid for the quantity needed to treat the 06 patient for the time that the patient is unable to access a practitioner; the licensee shall 07 document in the patient's medical record the reason for the prescription of an opioid in 08 a quantity that exceeds a seven-day supply and indicate that a nonopioid alternative 09 was not appropriate to address the medical condition; in this paragraph, "practitioner" 10 has the meaning given in AS 11.71.900; or 11 (3) the treatment of a patient's substance abuse or opioid dependence; 12 the licensee may write a prescription for an opioid approved for the treatment of 13 substance abuse or opioid dependence for the quantity needed to treat the patient's 14 substance abuse or opioid dependence; the licensee shall document in the patient's 15 medical record the reason for the prescription of an opioid approved for the treatment 16 of substance abuse or opioid dependence in a quantity that exceeds a seven-day supply 17 and indicate that a nonopioid alternative was not appropriate for the treatment of 18 substance abuse or opioid dependence. 19 (c) In this section, 20 (1) "adult" means 21 (A) an individual who has reached 18 years of age; or 22 (B) an emancipated minor; 23 (2) "emancipated minor" means a minor whose disabilities have been 24 removed for general purposes under AS 09.55.590; 25 (3) "minor" means a individual under 18 years of age who is not an 26 emancipated minor. 27 * Sec. 16. AS 08.64.364(c) is amended to read: 28 (c) The board may not impose disciplinary sanctions on a physician for 29 prescribing, dispensing, or administering a prescription drug that is a controlled 30 substance or botulinum toxin if the requirements under (a) of this section and 31 AS 08.64.363 are met and the physician prescribes, dispenses, or administers the

01 controlled substance or botulinum toxin when an appropriate licensed health care 02 provider is present with the patient to assist the physician with examination, diagnosis, 03 and treatment. 04 * Sec. 17. AS 08.64.380 is amended by adding a new paragraph to read: 05 (7) "opioid" includes the opium and opiate substances and opium and 06 opiate derivatives listed in AS 11.71.140. 07 * Sec. 18. AS 08.68.100(a), as amended by sec. 10, ch. 25, SLA 2016, is amended to read: 08 (a) The board shall 09 (1) adopt regulations necessary to implement this chapter, including 10 regulations 11 (A) pertaining to practice as an advanced practice registered 12 nurse, including requirements for an advanced practice registered nurse to 13 practice as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, certified clinical nurse 14 specialist, certified nurse practitioner, or certified nurse midwife; regulations 15 for an advanced practice registered nurse who holds a valid federal Drug 16 Enforcement Administration registration number must address training 17 in pain management and opioid use and addiction; 18 (B) necessary to implement AS 08.68.331 - 08.68.336 relating 19 to certified nurse aides in order to protect the health, safety, and welfare of 20 clients served by nurse aides; 21 (C) pertaining to retired nurse status; and 22 (D) establishing criteria for approval of practical nurse 23 education programs that are not accredited by a national nursing accrediting 24 body; 25 (2) approve curricula and adopt standards for basic education programs 26 that prepare persons for licensing under AS 08.68.190; 27 (3) provide for surveys of the basic nursing education programs in the 28 state at the times it considers necessary; 29 (4) approve education programs that meet the requirements of this 30 chapter and of the board, and deny, revoke, or suspend approval of education 31 programs for failure to meet the requirements;

01 (5) examine, license, and renew the licenses of qualified applicants; 02 (6) prescribe requirements for competence before a former registered, 03 advanced practice registered, or licensed practical nurse may resume the practice of 04 nursing under this chapter; 05 (7) define by regulation the qualifications and duties of the executive 06 administrator and delegate authority to the executive administrator that is necessary to 07 conduct board business; 08 (8) develop reasonable and uniform standards for nursing practice; 09 (9) publish advisory opinions regarding whether nursing practice 10 procedures or policies comply with acceptable standards of nursing practice as defined 11 under this chapter; 12 (10) require applicants under this chapter to submit fingerprints and the 13 fees required by the Department of Public Safety under AS 12.62.160 for criminal 14 justice information and a national criminal history record check; the department shall 15 submit the fingerprints and fees to the Department of Public Safety for a report of 16 criminal justice information under AS 12.62 and a national criminal history record 17 check under AS 12.62.400; 18 (11) require that a licensed advanced practice registered nurse 19 [PRACTITIONER] who has a federal Drug Enforcement Administration registration 20 number register with the controlled substance prescription database under 21 AS 17.30.200(o). 22 * Sec. 19. AS 08.68.270 is amended to read: 23 Sec. 08.68.270. Grounds for denial, suspension, or revocation. The board 24 may deny, suspend, or revoke the license of a person who 25 (1) has obtained or attempted to obtain a license to practice nursing by 26 fraud or deceit; 27 (2) has been convicted of a felony or other crime if the felony or other 28 crime is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of the licensee; 29 (3) habitually abuses alcoholic beverages, or illegally uses controlled 30 substances; 31 (4) has impersonated a registered, advanced practice registered, or

01 practical nurse; 02 (5) has intentionally or negligently engaged in conduct that has 03 resulted in a significant risk to the health or safety of a client or in injury to a client; 04 (6) practices or attempts to practice nursing while afflicted with 05 physical or mental illness, deterioration, or disability that interferes with the 06 individual's performance of nursing functions; 07 (7) is guilty of unprofessional conduct as defined by regulations 08 adopted by the board; 09 (8) has wilfully or repeatedly violated a provision of this chapter or 10 regulations adopted under this chapter or AS 08.01; 11 (9) is professionally incompetent; 12 (10) denies care or treatment to a patient or person seeking assistance 13 if the sole reason for the denial is the failure or refusal of the patient or person seeking 14 assistance to agree to arbitrate as provided in AS 09.55.535(a); 15 (11) has prescribed or dispensed an opioid in excess of the 16 maximum dosage authorized under AS 08.68.705; or 17 (12) has procured, sold, prescribed, or dispensed drugs in violation 18 of a law, regardless of whether there has been a criminal action or harm to the 19 patient. 20 * Sec. 20. AS 08.68.276 is amended to read: 21 Sec. 08.68.276. Continuing competence required. A license to practice 22 nursing may not be renewed unless the nurse has complied with continuing 23 competence requirements established by the board by regulation. The board shall 24 adopt regulations for renewal of a license of an advanced practice registered 25 nurse. The regulations must require that a licensee receive not less than two 26 hours of education in pain management and opioid use and addiction in the two 27 years preceding an application for renewal of a license unless the licensee has 28 demonstrated to the satisfaction of the board that the licensee does not currently 29 hold a valid federal Drug Enforcement Administration registration number. 30 * Sec. 21. AS 08.68 is amended by adding a new section to article 6 to read: 31 Sec. 08.68.705. Maximum dosage for opioid prescriptions. (a) An advanced

01 practice registered nurse may not issue 02 (1) an initial prescription for an opioid that exceeds a seven-day supply 03 to an adult patient for outpatient use; 04 (2) a prescription for an opioid that exceeds a seven-day supply to a 05 minor; at the time an advanced practice registered nurse writes a prescription for an 06 opioid for a minor, the advanced practice registered nurse shall discuss with the parent 07 or guardian of the minor why the prescription is necessary and the risks associated 08 with opioid use. 09 (b) Notwithstanding (a) of this section, an advanced practice registered nurse 10 may issue a prescription for an opioid that exceeds a seven-day supply to an adult or 11 minor patient if, in the professional judgment of the advanced practice registered 12 nurse, more than a seven-day supply of an opioid is necessary for 13 (1) the patient's acute medical condition, chronic pain management, 14 pain associated with cancer, or pain experienced while the patient is in palliative care; 15 the advanced practice registered nurse may write a prescription for an opioid for the 16 quantity needed to treat the patient's medical condition, chronic pain, pain associated 17 with cancer, or pain experienced while the patient is in palliative care; the advanced 18 practice registered nurse shall document in the patient's medical record the condition 19 triggering the prescription of an opioid in a quantity that exceeds a seven-day supply 20 and indicate that a nonopioid alternative was not appropriate to address the medical 21 condition; or 22 (2) a patient who is unable to access a practitioner within the time 23 necessary for a refill of the seven-day supply because of a logistical or travel barrier; 24 the advanced practice registered nurse may write a prescription for an opioid for the 25 quantity needed to treat the patient for the time that the patient is unable to access a 26 practitioner; the advanced practice registered nurse shall document in the patient's 27 medical record the reason for the prescription of an opioid in a quantity that exceeds a 28 seven-day supply and indicate that a nonopioid alternative was not appropriate to 29 address the medical condition; in this paragraph, "practitioner" has the meaning given 30 in AS 11.71.900. 31 (c) This section does not authorize an advanced practice registered nurse to

01 prescribe a controlled substance if the advanced practice registered nurse is not 02 otherwise authorized to prescribe a controlled substance under policies, procedures, or 03 regulations issued or adopted by the board. 04 (d) In this section, 05 (1) "adult" means 06 (A) an individual who has reached 18 years of age; or 07 (B) an emancipated minor; 08 (2) "emancipated minor" means a minor whose disabilities have been 09 removed for general purposes under AS 09.55.590; 10 (3) "minor" means an individual under 18 years of age who is not an 11 emancipated minor. 12 * Sec. 22. AS 08.68.850 is amended by adding a new paragraph to read: 13 (12) "opioid" includes the opium and opiate substances and opium and 14 opiate derivatives listed in AS 11.71.140. 15 * Sec. 23. AS 08.72.140 is amended to read: 16 Sec. 08.72.140. Qualifications for licensure. An applicant for licensure as an 17 optometrist 18 (1) shall be a graduate of a school or college of optometry recognized 19 by the board; 20 (2) may not have committed an act in any jurisdiction that would have 21 constituted a violation of this chapter or regulations adopted under this chapter at the 22 time the act was committed; 23 (3) may not have been disciplined by an optometry licensing entity in 24 another jurisdiction and may not be the subject of a pending disciplinary proceeding 25 conducted by an optometry licensing entity in another jurisdiction; however, the board 26 may consider the disciplinary action and, in the board's discretion, determine if the 27 person is qualified for licensure; 28 (4) shall have successfully completed 29 (A) the written and practical portions of an examination on 30 ocular pharmacology approved by the board that tests the licensee's or 31 applicant's knowledge of the characteristics, pharmacological effects,

01 indications, contraindications, and emergency care associated with the 02 prescription and use of pharmaceutical agents; 03 (B) a nontopical therapeutic pharmaceutical agent course of at 04 least 23 hours approved by the board or an examination approved by the board 05 on the treatment and management of ocular disease; and 06 (C) an optometry and nontopical therapeutic pharmaceutical 07 agent injection course of at least seven hours approved by the board or 08 equivalent training acceptable to the board; and 09 (5) shall meet other qualifications for licensure as established under 10 this chapter and regulations adopted by the board under AS 08.72.050; the 11 regulations must include qualifications for licensees who hold a valid federal 12 Drug Enforcement Administration registration number that address training in 13 pain management and opioid use and addiction. 14 * Sec. 24. AS 08.72.170 is amended to read: 15 Sec. 08.72.170. Licensure by credentials. The board shall issue a license by 16 credentials to an applicant who 17 (1) is a graduate of a school or college of optometry recognized by the 18 board; 19 (2) has passed a written examination approved by the board that is 20 designed to test the applicant's knowledge of the laws of Alaska governing the practice 21 of optometry and the regulations adopted under those laws; 22 (3) holds a current license to practice optometry in another state or 23 territory of the United States or in a province of Canada that has licensure 24 requirements that the board determines are equivalent to those established under this 25 chapter; 26 (4) at some time in the past, received a license to practice optometry 27 from another state or territory of the United States or from a province of Canada that 28 required the person to have passed the National Board of Examiners in Optometry 29 examination to qualify for licensure; 30 (5) was engaged in the active licensed clinical practice of optometry in 31 a state or territory of the United States or in a province of Canada for at least 3,120

01 hours during the 36 months preceding the date of application under this section; 02 (6) has not committed an act in any jurisdiction that would have 03 constituted a violation of this chapter or regulations adopted under this chapter at the 04 time the act was committed; [AND] 05 (7) has not been disciplined by an optometry licensing entity in another 06 jurisdiction and is not the subject of a pending disciplinary proceeding conducted by 07 an optometry licensing entity in another jurisdiction; however, the board may consider 08 the disciplinary action and, in the board's discretion, determine whether [IF] the 09 person is qualified for licensure; and 10 (8) has received education in pain management and opioid use and 11 addiction adequate for the practice of optometry, unless the applicant has 12 demonstrated to the satisfaction of the board that the applicant does not 13 currently hold a valid federal Drug Enforcement Administration registration 14 number; an applicant may include past professional experience or professional 15 education as proof of professional competence. 16 * Sec. 25. AS 08.72.181(d) is amended to read: 17 (d) Before a license may be renewed, the licensee shall submit to the board 18 evidence that, in the four years preceding the application for renewal, the licensee has 19 (1) completed eight hours of continuing education, approved by the 20 board, concerning the use and prescription of pharmaceutical agents; 21 (2) completed seven hours of continuing education, approved by the 22 board, concerning the injection of nontopical therapeutic pharmaceutical agents; 23 [AND] 24 (3) completed at least two hours of education in pain management 25 and opioid use and addiction, unless the applicant has demonstrated to the 26 satisfaction of the board that the applicant does not currently hold a valid federal 27 Drug Enforcement Administration registration number; and 28 (4) met other continuing education requirements as may be prescribed 29 by regulations of the board to ensure the continued protection of the public. 30 * Sec. 26. AS 08.72.240 is amended to read: 31 Sec. 08.72.240. Grounds for imposition of disciplinary sanctions. The board

01 may impose disciplinary sanctions when the board finds after a hearing that a licensee 02 (1) secured a license through deceit, fraud, or intentional 03 misrepresentation; 04 (2) engaged in deceit, fraud, or intentional misrepresentation in the 05 course of providing professional services or engaging in professional activities; 06 (3) advertised professional services in a false or misleading manner; 07 (4) has been convicted of a felony or other crime that [WHICH] 08 affects the licensee's ability to continue to practice competently and safely; 09 (5) intentionally or negligently engaged in or permitted the 10 performance of patient care by persons under the licensee's supervision that [WHICH] 11 does not conform to minimum professional standards regardless of whether actual 12 injury to the patient occurred; 13 (6) failed to comply with this chapter, with a regulation adopted under 14 this chapter, or with an order of the board; 15 (7) continued to practice after becoming unfit due to 16 (A) professional incompetence; 17 (B) failure to keep informed of or use current professional 18 theories or practices; 19 (C) addiction or severe dependency on alcohol or other drugs 20 that [WHICH] impairs the licensee's ability to practice safely; 21 (D) physical or mental disability; 22 (8) engaged in lewd or immoral conduct in connection with the 23 delivery of professional service to patients; 24 (9) failed to refer a patient to a physician after ascertaining the 25 presence of ocular or systemic conditions requiring management by a physician; 26 (10) procured, sold, prescribed, or dispensed drugs in violation of 27 a law, regardless of whether there has been a criminal action or harm to the 28 patient. 29 * Sec. 27. AS 08.80.030(b), as amended by sec. 12, ch. 25, SLA 2016, is amended to read: 30 (b) In order to fulfill its responsibilities, the board has the powers necessary 31 for implementation and enforcement of this chapter, including the power to

01 (1) elect a president and secretary from its membership and adopt rules 02 for the conduct of its business; 03 (2) license by examination or by license transfer the applicants who are 04 qualified to engage in the practice of pharmacy; 05 (3) assist the department in inspections and investigations for 06 violations of this chapter, or of any other state or federal statute relating to the practice 07 of pharmacy; 08 (4) adopt regulations to carry out the purposes of this chapter; 09 (5) establish and enforce compliance with professional standards and 10 rules of conduct for pharmacists engaged in the practice of pharmacy; 11 (6) determine standards for recognition and approval of degree 12 programs of schools and colleges of pharmacy whose graduates shall be eligible for 13 licensure in this state, including the specification and enforcement of requirements for 14 practical training, including internships; 15 (7) establish for pharmacists and pharmacies minimum specifications 16 for the physical facilities, technical equipment, personnel, and procedures for the 17 storage, compounding, and dispensing of drugs or related devices, and for the 18 monitoring of drug therapy; 19 (8) enforce the provisions of this chapter relating to the conduct or 20 competence of pharmacists practicing in the state, and the suspension, revocation, or 21 restriction of licenses to engage in the practice of pharmacy; 22 (9) license and regulate the training, qualifications, and employment of 23 pharmacy interns and pharmacy technicians; 24 (10) issue licenses to persons engaged in the manufacture and 25 distribution of drugs and related devices; 26 (11) establish and maintain a controlled substance prescription 27 database as provided in AS 17.30.200; 28 (12) establish standards for the independent administration by a 29 pharmacist of vaccines and related emergency medications under AS 08.80.168, 30 including the completion of an immunization training program approved by the board; 31 (13) establish standards for the independent dispensing by a

01 pharmacist of an opioid overdose drug under AS 17.20.085, including the completion 02 of an opioid overdose training program approved by the board; 03 (14) require that a licensed pharmacist [WHO HAS A FEDERAL 04 DRUG ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION REGISTRATION NUMBER] 05 register with the controlled substance prescription database under AS 17.30.200(o). 06 * Sec. 28. AS 08.80 is amended by adding a new section to article 3 to read: 07 Sec. 08.80.345. Prescription for an opioid; voluntary request for lesser 08 quantity. (a) A pharmacist filling a prescription for an opioid that is a schedule II or 09 III controlled substance under federal law may, at the request of the individual for 10 whom the prescription is written, dispense the prescribed opioid in a lesser quantity 11 than prescribed. 12 (b) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent substitution of an 13 equivalent drug under AS 08.80.295. 14 * Sec. 29. AS 08.98.050(a) is amended to read: 15 (a) The board shall 16 (1) establish examination requirements for eligible applicants for 17 licensure to practice veterinary medicine; 18 (2) examine, or cause to be examined, eligible applicants for licensure 19 or registration; 20 (3) approve the issuance of licenses and student permits to qualified 21 applicants; 22 (4) establish standards for the practice of veterinary medicine by 23 regulation; 24 (5) conduct disciplinary proceedings in accordance with this chapter; 25 (6) adopt regulations requiring proof of continued competency before a 26 license is renewed; 27 (7) as requested by the department, monitor the standards and 28 availability of veterinary services provided in the state and report its findings to the 29 department; 30 (8) collect, or cause to be collected, data concerning the practice of 31 veterinary technology by veterinary technicians in the state and submit the data to the

01 department for maintenance; 02 (9) establish, by regulation, educational and training requirements for 03 (A) the issuance of student permits; and 04 (B) the delegation of duties by veterinarians licensed under this 05 chapter to veterinary technicians; 06 (10) require that a licensee who has a federal Drug Enforcement 07 Administration registration number register with the controlled substance 08 prescription database under AS 17.30.200(o); 09 (11) identify resources and develop educational materials to assist 10 licensees to identify an animal owner who may be at risk for abusing or misusing 11 an opioid. 12 * Sec. 30. AS 08.98.235 is amended to read: 13 Sec. 08.98.235. Grounds for imposition of disciplinary sanctions. After a 14 hearing, the board may impose a disciplinary sanction on a person licensed under this 15 chapter when the board finds that the person 16 (1) secured a license through deceit, fraud, or intentional 17 misrepresentation; 18 (2) engaged in deceit, fraud, or intentional misrepresentation in the 19 course of providing professional services or engaging in professional activities; 20 (3) advertised professional services in a false or misleading manner; 21 (4) has been convicted of a felony or other crime which affects the 22 person's ability to continue to practice competently and safely; 23 (5) intentionally or negligently engaged in or permitted the 24 performance of animal care by the person's supervisees which does not conform to 25 minimum professional standards regardless of whether actual injury to the animal 26 occurred; 27 (6) failed to comply with this chapter, with a regulation adopted under 28 this chapter, or with an order of the board; 29 (7) continued to practice after becoming unfit due to 30 (A) professional incompetence; 31 (B) addiction or severe dependency on alcohol or other drugs

01 which impairs the person's ability to practice safely; 02 (C) physical or mental disability; 03 (8) engaged in lewd or immoral conduct in connection with the 04 delivery of professional service; 05 (9) procured, sold, prescribed, or dispensed drugs in violation of a 06 law, regardless of whether there has been a criminal action. 07 * Sec. 31. AS 13 is amended by adding a new chapter to read: 08 Chapter 55. Voluntary Nonopioid Directive Act. 09 Sec. 13.55.010. Nonopioid directive; revocation; other requirements. (a) 10 An individual who is 18 years of age or older may execute a voluntary nonopioid 11 directive stating that an opioid may not be administered or prescribed to the 12 individual. The directive must be in a format prescribed by the department and 13 available in an electronic format. 14 (b) The commissioner of health and social services shall adopt regulations to 15 implement this chapter. The regulations must 16 (1) include verification by a health care provider and comply with the 17 written consent requirements under 42 U.S.C. 290dd-2(b); 18 (2) provide standard procedures for an individual to submit a voluntary 19 nonopioid directive to a health care provider or hospital; 20 (3) include appropriate exemptions for emergency medical personnel; 21 (4) ensure the confidentiality of a voluntary nonopioid directive; 22 (5) ensure exemptions for an opioid used for treatment of substance 23 abuse or opioid dependence. 24 (c) An individual may revoke a voluntary nonopioid directive at any time in 25 writing or orally. An individual's guardian, conservator, or other person appointed by 26 the individual or a court to manage the individual's health care 27 (1) may revoke an individual's voluntary nonopioid directive at any 28 time, in writing or orally; 29 (2) may not execute a voluntary nonopioid directive on behalf of the 30 individual. 31 (d) An individual may submit a voluntary nonopioid directive to a health care

01 provider or a hospital. 02 Sec. 13.55.020. Obligations of health care providers and hospitals. A health 03 care provider, a hospital, or an employee of a health care provider or hospital may not 04 be subject to disciplinary action by the health care provider's or the employee's 05 professional licensing board or held civilly or criminally liable for failure to 06 administer, prescribe, or dispense an opioid, or for inadvertent administration of an 07 opioid, to an individual who has executed a voluntary nonopioid directive. 08 Sec. 13.55.030. Prescriptions presumed valid. A prescription presented to a 09 pharmacy is presumed to be valid, and a pharmacist may not be subject to disciplinary 10 action by the pharmacist's professional licensing board or held civilly or criminally 11 liable for dispensing a controlled substance in contradiction to an individual's 12 voluntary nonopioid directive. 13 Sec. 13.55.040. Effect of this chapter. Nothing is this chapter shall be 14 construed to 15 (1) alter an advance health care directive under AS 13.52 (Health Care 16 Decisions Act); 17 (2) limit the prescribing, dispensing, or administering of an opioid 18 overdose drug; 19 (3) limit an authorized health care provider or pharmacist from 20 prescribing, dispensing, or administering an opioid for the treatment of substance 21 abuse or opioid dependence. 22 Sec. 13.55.100. Definitions. In this chapter, unless the context otherwise 23 requires, 24 (1) "department" means the Department of Health and Social Services; 25 (2) "health care provider" has the meaning given in AS 09.65.340; 26 (3) "hospital" has the meaning given in AS 13.52.268; 27 (4) "opioid" includes the opium and opiate substances and opium and 28 opiate derivatives listed in AS 11.71.140; 29 (5) "opioid overdose drug" has the meaning given in AS 09.65.340. 30 Sec. 13.55.110. Short title. This chapter may be known as the Voluntary 31 Nonopioid Directive Act.

01 * Sec. 32. AS 17.30.200(a), as amended by sec. 21, ch. 25, SLA 2016, is amended to read: 02 (a) The controlled substance prescription database is established in the Board 03 of Pharmacy. The purpose of the database is to contain data as described in this 04 section regarding every prescription for a schedule II, III, or IV controlled substance 05 under federal law dispensed in the state to a person other than under the 06 circumstances described in (u) of this section [THOSE ADMINISTERED TO A 07 PATIENT AT A HEALTH CARE FACILITY]. 08 * Sec. 33. AS 17.30.200(b), as amended by sec. 23, ch. 25, SLA 2016, is amended to read: 09 (b) The pharmacist-in-charge of each licensed or registered pharmacy, 10 regarding each schedule II, III, or IV controlled substance under federal law dispensed 11 by a pharmacist under the supervision of the pharmacist-in-charge, and each 12 practitioner who directly dispenses a schedule II, III, or IV controlled substance under 13 federal law other than those dispensed or administered under the circumstances 14 described in (u) of this section [ADMINISTERED TO A PATIENT AT A HEALTH 15 CARE FACILITY], shall submit to the board, by a procedure and in a format 16 established by the board, the following information for inclusion in the database on at 17 least a weekly basis: 18 (1) the name of the prescribing practitioner and the practitioner's 19 federal Drug Enforcement Administration registration number or other appropriate 20 identifier; 21 (2) the date of the prescription; 22 (3) the date the prescription was filled and the method of payment; this 23 paragraph does not authorize the board to include individual credit card or other 24 account numbers in the database; 25 (4) the name, address, and date of birth of the person for whom the 26 prescription was written; 27 (5) the name and national drug code of the controlled substance; 28 (6) the quantity and strength of the controlled substance dispensed; 29 (7) the name of the drug outlet dispensing the controlled substance; 30 and 31 (8) the name of the pharmacist or practitioner dispensing the controlled

01 substance and other appropriate identifying information. 02 * Sec. 34. AS 17.30.200(b), as amended by sec. 33 of this Act, is amended to read: 03 (b) The pharmacist-in-charge of each licensed or registered pharmacy, 04 regarding each schedule II, III, or IV controlled substance under federal law dispensed 05 by a pharmacist under the supervision of the pharmacist-in-charge, and each 06 practitioner who directly dispenses a schedule II, III, or IV controlled substance under 07 federal law other than those dispensed or administered under the circumstances 08 described in (u) of this section, shall submit to the board, by a procedure and in a 09 format established by the board, the following information for inclusion in the 10 database on at least a daily [WEEKLY] basis: 11 (1) the name of the prescribing practitioner and the practitioner's 12 federal Drug Enforcement Administration registration number or other appropriate 13 identifier; 14 (2) the date of the prescription; 15 (3) the date the prescription was filled and the method of payment; this 16 paragraph does not authorize the board to include individual credit card or other 17 account numbers in the database; 18 (4) the name, address, and date of birth of the person for whom the 19 prescription was written; 20 (5) the name and national drug code of the controlled substance; 21 (6) the quantity and strength of the controlled substance dispensed; 22 (7) the name of the drug outlet dispensing the controlled substance; 23 and 24 (8) the name of the pharmacist or practitioner dispensing the controlled 25 substance and other appropriate identifying information. 26 * Sec. 35. AS 17.30.200(d), as amended by sec. 25, ch. 25, SLA 2016, is amended to read: 27 (d) The database and the information contained within the database are 28 confidential, are not public records, and are not subject to public disclosure [, AND 29 MAY NOT BE SHARED WITH THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT]. The board shall 30 undertake to ensure the security and confidentiality of the database and the 31 information contained within the database. The board may allow access to the

01 database only to the following persons, and in accordance with the limitations 02 provided and regulations of the board: 03 (1) personnel of the board regarding inquiries concerning licensees or 04 registrants of the board or personnel of another board or agency concerning a 05 practitioner under a search warrant, subpoena, or order issued by an administrative law 06 judge or a court; 07 (2) authorized board personnel or contractors as required for 08 operational and review purposes; 09 (3) a licensed practitioner having authority to prescribe controlled 10 substances or an agent or employee of the practitioner whom the practitioner has 11 authorized to access the database on the practitioner's behalf, to the extent the 12 information relates specifically to a current patient of the practitioner to whom the 13 practitioner is prescribing or considering prescribing a controlled substance; the agent 14 or employee must be licensed or registered under AS 08; 15 (4) a licensed or registered pharmacist having authority to dispense 16 controlled substances or an agent or employee of the pharmacist whom the pharmacist 17 has authorized to access the database on the pharmacist's behalf, to the extent the 18 information relates specifically to a current patient to whom the pharmacist is 19 dispensing or considering dispensing a controlled substance; the agent or employee 20 must be licensed or registered under AS 08; 21 (5) federal, state, and local law enforcement authorities may receive 22 printouts of information contained in the database under a search warrant or order 23 issued by a court establishing probable cause for the access and use of the information; 24 (6) an individual who is the recipient of a controlled substance 25 prescription entered into the database may receive information contained in the 26 database concerning the individual on providing evidence satisfactory to the board that 27 the individual requesting the information is in fact the person about whom the data 28 entry was made and on payment of a fee set by the board under AS 37.10.050 that 29 does not exceed $10; 30 (7) a licensed pharmacist employed by the Department of Health and 31 Social Services who is responsible for administering prescription drug coverage for

01 the medical assistance program under AS 47.07, to the extent that the information 02 relates specifically to prescription drug coverage under the program; 03 (8) a licensed pharmacist, licensed practitioner, or authorized 04 employee of the Department of Health and Social Services responsible for utilization 05 review of prescription drugs for the medical assistance program under AS 47.07, to the 06 extent that the information relates specifically to utilization review of prescription 07 drugs provided to recipients of medical assistance; 08 (9) the state medical examiner, to the extent that the information 09 relates specifically to investigating the cause and manner of a person's death; 10 (10) an authorized employee of the Department of Health and Social 11 Services may receive information from the database that does not disclose the identity 12 of a patient, prescriber, dispenser, or dispenser location, for the purpose of identifying 13 and monitoring public health issues in the state; however, the information provided 14 under this paragraph may include the region of the state in which a patient, prescriber, 15 and dispenser are located and the specialty of the prescriber; and 16 (11) a practitioner, pharmacist, or clinical staff employed by an Alaska 17 tribal health organization, including commissioned corps officers of the United States 18 Public Health Service employed under a memorandum of agreement; in this 19 paragraph, "Alaska tribal health organization" has the meaning given to "tribal health 20 program" in 25 U.S.C. 1603. 21 * Sec. 36. AS 17.30.200(e), as amended by sec. 27, ch. 25, SLA 2016, is amended to read: 22 (e) The failure of a pharmacist-in-charge or a [,] pharmacist [, OR 23 PRACTITIONER] to register or submit information to the database as required under 24 this section is grounds for the board to take disciplinary action against the license or 25 registration of the pharmacy or pharmacist. The failure of a practitioner to register 26 or review the database as required under this section is grounds for the 27 practitioner's [OR FOR ANOTHER] licensing board to take disciplinary action 28 against the [A] practitioner. 29 * Sec. 37. AS 17.30.200(p), enacted by sec. 34, ch. 25, SLA 2016, is amended to read: 30 (p) The board shall promptly notify the State Medical Board, the Board of 31 Nursing, the Board of Dental Examiners, [AND] the Board of Examiners in

01 Optometry, and the Board of Veterinary Examiners when a practitioner registers 02 with the database under (o) of this section. 03 * Sec. 38. AS 17.30.200(q), enacted by sec. 34, ch. 25, SLA 2016, is amended to read: 04 (q) The board is authorized to provide unsolicited notification to a pharmacist, 05 practitioner's licensing board, or practitioner if a patient has received one or more 06 prescriptions for controlled substances in quantities or with a frequency inconsistent 07 with generally recognized standards of safe practice. An unsolicited notification to a 08 practitioner's licensing board under this section 09 (1) must be provided to the practitioner; 10 (2) is confidential; 11 (3) may not disclose information that is confidential under this 12 section; 13 (4) may be in a summary form sufficient to provide notice of the 14 basis for the unsolicited notification. 15 * Sec. 39. AS 17.30.200(r), enacted by sec. 34, ch. 25, SLA 2016, is amended to read: 16 (r) The board shall update the database on at least a daily [WEEKLY] basis 17 with the information submitted to the board under (b) of this section. 18 * Sec. 40. AS 17.30.200(n) is amended by adding a new paragraph to read: 19 (5) "opioid" includes the opium and opiate substances and opium and 20 opiate derivatives listed in AS 11.71.140. 21 * Sec. 41. AS 17.30.200 is amended by adding new subsections to read: 22 (t) Notwithstanding (q) of this section, the board may issue to a practitioner 23 periodic unsolicited reports that detail and compare the practitioner's opioid 24 prescribing practice with other practitioners of the same occupation and similar 25 specialty. A report issued under this subsection is confidential and the board shall 26 issue the report only to a practitioner. The board may adopt regulations to implement 27 this subsection. The regulations may address the types of controlled substances to be 28 included in an unsolicited report, the quantities dispensed, the medication strength, 29 and other factors determined by the board. 30 (u) A practitioner or a pharmacist is not required to comply with the 31 requirements of (a) and (b) of this section if a controlled substance is

01 (1) administered to a patient at 02 (A) a health care facility; or 03 (B) a correctional facility; 04 (2) dispensed to a patient for an outpatient supply of 24 hours or less at 05 a hospital 06 (A) inpatient pharmacy; or 07 (B) emergency department. 08 * Sec. 42. AS 18.05.040(a) is amended to read: 09 (a) The commissioner shall adopt regulations consistent with existing law for 10 (1) the time, manner, information to be reported, and persons 11 responsible for reporting for each disease or other condition of public health 12 importance on the list developed under AS 18.15.370; 13 (2) cooperation with local boards of health and health officers; 14 (3) protection and promotion of the public health and prevention of 15 disability and mortality; 16 (4) the transportation of dead bodies, except that the commissioner 17 may not require that a dead body be embalmed unless the body is known to carry a 18 communicable disease or embalmment is otherwise required for the protection of the 19 public health or for compliance with federal law; 20 (5) carrying out the purposes of this chapter; 21 (6) the conduct of its business and for carrying out the provisions of 22 laws of the United States and the state relating to public health; 23 (7) establishing the divisions and local offices and advisory groups 24 necessary or considered expedient to carry out or assist in carrying out a duty or power 25 assigned to it; 26 (8) the voluntary certification of laboratories to perform diagnostic, 27 quality control, or enforcement analyses or examinations based on recognized or 28 tentative standards of performance relating to analysis and examination of food, 29 including seafood, milk, water, and specimens from human beings submitted by 30 licensed physicians and nurses for analysis; 31 (9) the regulation of quality and purity of commercially compressed

01 oxygen sold for human respiration; 02 (10) establishing confidentiality and security standards for information 03 and records received under AS 18.15.355 - 18.15.395; 04 (11) implementation of AS 13.55 (Voluntary Nonopioid Directive 05 Act). 06 * Sec. 43. Sections 22, 24, 26, 28, 30, 32, 52, and 73, ch. 25, SLA 2016, are repealed. 07 * Sec. 44. The uncodified law of the State of Alaska is amended by adding a new section to 08 read: 09 TRANSITION: REGULATIONS. (a) The Department of Health and Social Services 10 may adopt regulations necessary to implement the changes made by secs. 31 and 42 of this 11 Act. The regulations take effect under AS 44.62 (Administrative Procedure Act), but not 12 before the effective date of the relevant provision of this Act implemented by the regulation. 13 (b) The Department of Commerce, Community, and Economic Development and a 14 board that regulates an occupation that includes a practitioner required to register with the 15 controlled substance prescription database under AS 17.30.200 shall adopt regulations to 16 implement the changes made by AS 17.30.200(b), as amended by sec. 34 of this Act, and 17 AS 17.30.200(r), as amended by sec. 39 of this Act. The regulations take effect under 18 AS 44.62 (Administrative Procedure Act), but not before the effective date of the relevant 19 provision of secs. 34 and 39 of this Act implemented by the regulation. In this subsection, 20 (1) "board" has the meaning given in AS 08.01.110; 21 (2) "occupation" has the meaning given in AS 08.01.110; 22 (3) "practitioner" has the meaning given in AS 11.71.900. 23 (c) The Board of Dental Examiners may adopt regulations necessary to implement the 24 changes made by secs. 1 and 2 of this Act. The regulations take effect under AS 44.62 25 (Administrative Procedure Act), but not before the effective date of the relevant provision of 26 secs. 1 and 2 of this Act implemented by the regulation. 27 (d) The State Medical Board may adopt regulations necessary to implement the 28 changes made by secs. 6 - 13 of this Act. The regulations take effect under AS 44.62 29 (Administrative Procedure Act), but not before the effective date of the relevant provision of 30 secs. 6 - 13 of this Act implemented by the regulation. 31 (e) The Board of Nursing may adopt regulations necessary to implement the changes

01 made by secs. 18 and 20 of this Act. The regulations take effect under AS 44.62 02 (Administrative Procedure Act), but not before the effective date of the relevant provision of 03 secs. 18 and 20 of this Act implemented by the regulation. 04 (f) The Board of Examiners in Optometry may adopt regulations necessary to 05 implement the changes made by secs. 23 - 25 of this Act. The regulations take effect under 06 AS 44.62 (Administrative Procedure Act), but not before the effective date of the relevant 07 provision of secs. 23 - 25 of this Act implemented by the regulation. 08 * Sec. 45. Section 27 of this Act takes effect on the effective date of sec. 12, ch. 25, SLA 09 2016. 10 * Sec. 46. Section 32 of this Act takes effect on the effective date of sec. 21, ch. 25, SLA 11 2016. 12 * Sec. 47. Section 33 of this Act takes effect on the effective date of sec. 23, ch. 25, SLA 13 2016. 14 * Sec. 48. Section 35 of this Act takes effect on the effective date of sec. 25, ch. 25, SLA 15 2016. 16 * Sec. 49. Section 36 of this Act takes effect on the effective date of sec. 27, ch. 25, SLA 17 2016. 18 * Sec. 50. Sections 37 and 38 of this Act take effect on the effective date of sec. 34, ch. 25, 19 SLA 2016. 20 * Sec. 51. Section 41 of this Act takes effect on the effective date of secs. 21 and 23, ch. 25, 21 SLA 2016. 22 * Sec. 52. Section 1, 2, 6 - 13, 18, 20, 23 - 25, 34, and 39 of this Act take effect July 1, 23 2018. 24 * Sec. 53. Sections 31 and 42 of this Act take effect July 1, 2019. 25 * Sec. 54. Except as provided in secs. 45 - 53 of this Act, this Act takes effect immediately 26 under AS 01.10.070(c).